Magdalene's habit revealed at Bethany mirrors a hidden perfection of the Blessed Virgin Mary – and the Church united them on the Feast of the Assumption.
Aren't the Church Fathers pretty much divided on whether Mary of Bethany & Mary Magdalen are the same or different persons? I tend to believe they are different, but can be persuaded otherwise if a majority of the Fathers say differently.
Coleridge gives his take in the article linked there about the anointing, in the notes. It's an open question I think, but as it's from his perspective that headline followed his usage.
Aren't the Church Fathers pretty much divided on whether Mary of Bethany & Mary Magdalen are the same or different persons? I tend to believe they are different, but can be persuaded otherwise if a majority of the Fathers say differently.
Coleridge gives his take in the article linked there about the anointing, in the notes. It's an open question I think, but as it's from his perspective that headline followed his usage.